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A company would like to provide employees with computers that do not have access to the internetin order to prevent information from being leaked to an online forum. Which of the following wouldbe best for the systems administrator to implement?
A. Air gap B. Jump server C. Logical segmentation D. Virtualization
Answer: A
Explanation:
To provide employees with computers that do not have access to the internet and prevent
information leaks to an online forum, implementing an air gap would be the best solution. An air gap
physically isolates the computer or network from any outside connections, including the internet,
ensuring that data cannot be transferred to or from the system.
Air gap: A security measure that isolates a computer or network from the internet or other networks,
preventing any form of electronic communication with external systems.
Jump server: A secure server used to access and manage devices in a different security zone, but it
does not provide isolation from the internet.
Logical segmentation: Segregates networks using software or network configurations, but it does not
guarantee complete isolation from the internet.
Virtualization: Creates virtual instances of systems, which can be isolated, but does not inherently
prevent internet access without additional configurations.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 2.5 - Explain the purpose of mitigation techniques used to secure the enterprise (Air gap) .
Question # 2
An administrator needs to perform server hardening before deployment. Which of the followingsteps should the administrator take? (Select two)
A. Disable default accounts. B. Add the server to the asset inventory. C. Remove unnecessary services. D. Document default passwords. E. Send server logs to the SIEM.E. Join the server to the corporate domain.
Answer: A, C
Explanation:
To perform server hardening before deployment, the administrator should disable default accounts
and remove unnecessary services. These steps are crucial to reducing the attack surface and
enhancing the security of the server.
Disable default accounts: Default accounts often come with default credentials that are well-known
and can be exploited by attackers. Disabling these accounts helps prevent unauthorized access.
Remove unnecessary services: Unnecessary services can introduce vulnerabilities and be exploited
by attackers. Removing them reduces the number of potential attack vectors.
Add the server to the asset inventory: Important for tracking and management but not directly
related to hardening.
Document default passwords: Documentation is useful, but changing or disabling default passwords
is the hardening step.
Send server logs to the SIEM: Useful for monitoring and analysis but not a direct hardening step.
Join the server to the corporate domain: Part of integration into the network but not specific to
hardening.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 1.1 - Compare and contrast various
types of security controls (Server hardening) .
Question # 3
Which of the following tasks is typically included in the BIA process?
A. Estimating the recovery time of systems B. Identifying the communication strategy C. Evaluating the risk management plan D. Establishing the backup and recovery procedures E. Developing the incident response plan
Answer: A
Explanation:
Estimating the recovery time of systems is a task typically included in the Business Impact Analysis
(BIA) process. BIA involves identifying the critical functions of a business and determining the impact
of a disruption. This includes estimating how long it will take to recover systems and resume normal
operations.
Estimating the recovery time of systems: A key component of BIA, which helps in understanding the
time needed to restore systems and services after a disruption.
Identifying the communication strategy: Typically part of the incident response plan, not BIA.
Evaluating the risk management plan: Part of risk management, not specifically BIA.
Establishing the backup and recovery procedures: Important for disaster recovery, not directly part of
BIA.
Developing the incident response plan: Focuses on responding to security incidents, not on the
Which of the following describes effective change management procedures?
A. Approving the change after a successful deployment B. Having a backout plan when a patch fails C. Using a spreadsheet for tracking changes D. Using an automatic change control bypass for security updates
Answer: B
Effective change management procedures include having a backout plan when a patch fails. A
backout plan ensures that there are predefined steps to revert the system to its previous state if the
new change or patch causes issues, thereby minimizing downtime and mitigating potential negative
impacts.
Having a backout plan when a patch fails: Essential for ensuring that changes can be safely reverted
in case of problems, maintaining system stability and availability.
Approving the change after a successful deployment: Changes should be approved before
deployment, not after.
Using a spreadsheet for tracking changes: While useful for documentation, it is not a comprehensive
change management procedure.
Using an automatic change control bypass for security updates: Bypassing change control can lead to
unapproved and potentially disruptive changes.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 1.3 - Explain the importance of
change management processes (Backout plan) .
Question # 5
A security administrator is configuring fileshares. The administrator removed the default permissionsand added permissions for only users who will need to access the fileshares as part of their jobduties. Which of the following best describes why the administrator performed these actions?
A. Encryption standard compliance B. Data replication requirements C. Least privilege D. Access control monitoring
Answer: C
Explanation:
The security administrator's actions of removing default permissions and adding permissions only for
users who need access as part of their job duties best describe the principle of least privilege. This
principle ensures that users are granted the minimum necessary access to perform their job
functions, reducing the risk of unauthorized access or data breaches.
Least privilege: Limits access rights for users to the bare minimum necessary for their job duties,
enhancing security by reducing potential attack surfaces.
Encryption standard compliance: Involves meeting encryption requirements, but it does not explain
the removal and assignment of specific permissions.
Data replication requirements: Focus on duplicating data across different systems for redundancy and
availability, not related to user permissions.
Access control monitoring: Involves tracking and reviewing access to resources, but the scenario is
A systems administrator would like to deploy a change to a production system. Which of thefollowing must the administrator submit to demonstrate that the system can be restored to aworking state in the event of a performance issue?
A. Backout plan B. Impact analysis C. Test procedure D. Approval procedure
Answer: A
Explanation:
To demonstrate that the system can be restored to a working state in the event of a performance
issue after deploying a change, the systems administrator must submit a backout plan. A backout
plan outlines the steps to revert the system to its previous state if the new deployment causes
problems.
Backout plan: Provides detailed steps to revert changes and restore the system to its previous state in
case of issues, ensuring minimal disruption and quick recovery.
Impact analysis: Evaluates the potential effects of a change but does not provide steps to revert
changes.
Test procedure: Details the steps for testing the change but does not address restoring the system to
a previous state.
Approval procedure: Involves obtaining permissions for the change but does not ensure system
recovery in case of issues.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 1.3 - Explain the importance of
change management processes (Backout plan) .
Question # 7
An organization wants to ensure the integrity of compiled binaries in the production environment.Which of the following security measures would best support this objective?
A. Input validation B. Code signing C. SQL injection D. Static analysis
Answer: B
Explanation:
To ensure the integrity of compiled binaries in the production environment, the best security
measure is code signing. Code signing uses digital signatures to verify the authenticity and integrity
of the software, ensuring that the code has not been tampered with or altered after it was signed.
Code signing: Involves signing code with a digital signature to verify its authenticity and integrity,
ensuring the compiled binaries have not been altered.
Input validation: Ensures that only properly formatted data enters an application but does not verify
the integrity of compiled binaries.
SQL injection: A type of attack, not a security measure.
Static analysis: Analyzes code for vulnerabilities and errors but does not ensure the integrity of
compiled binaries in production.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 1.4 - Explain the importance of
using appropriate cryptographic solutions (Code signing) .
Question # 8
A company is decommissioning its physical servers and replacing them with an architecture that willreduce the number of individual operating systems. Which of the following strategies should thecompany use to achieve this security requirement?
A. Microservices B. Containerization C. Virtualization D. Infrastructure as code
Answer: B
Explanation:
To reduce the number of individual operating systems while decommissioning physical servers, the
company should use containerization. Containerization allows multiple applications to run in isolated
environments on a single operating system, significantly reducing the overhead compared to running
multiple virtual machines, each with its own OS.
Containerization: Uses containers to run multiple isolated applications on a single OS kernel,
reducing the need for multiple OS instances and improving resource utilization.
Microservices: An architectural style that structures an application as a collection of loosely coupled
services, which does not necessarily reduce the number of operating systems.
Virtualization: Allows multiple virtual machines to run on a single physical server, but each VM
requires its own OS, not reducing the number of OS instances.
Infrastructure as code: Manages and provisions computing infrastructure through machine-readable
configuration files, but it does not directly impact the number of operating systems.
implications of different architecture models (Containerization) .
Question # 9
A company hired a security manager from outside the organization to lead security operations.Which of the following actions should the security manager perform first in this new role?
A. Establish a security baseline. B. Review security policies. C. Adopt security benchmarks. D. Perform a user ID revalidation
Answer: B
Explanation:
When a security manager is hired from outside the organization to lead security operations, the first
action should be to review the existing security policies. Understanding the current security policies
provides a foundation for identifying strengths, weaknesses, and areas that require improvement,
ensuring that the security program aligns with the organization's goals and regulatory requirements.
Review security policies: Provides a comprehensive understanding of the existing security
framework, helping the new manager to identify gaps and areas for enhancement.
Establish a security baseline: Important but should be based on a thorough understanding of existing
policies and practices.
Adopt security benchmarks: Useful for setting standards, but reviewing current policies is a necessary
precursor.
Perform a user ID revalidation: Important for ensuring user access is appropriate but not the first step
in understanding overall security operations.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 5.1 - Summarize elements of
Which of the following security controls is most likely being used when a critical legacy server issegmented into a private network?
A. Deterrent B. Corrective C. Compensating D. Preventive
Answer: C
Explanation:
When a critical legacy server is segmented into a private network, the security control being used is
compensating. Compensating controls are alternative measures put in place to satisfy a security
requirement when the primary control is not feasible or practical. In this case, segmenting the legacy
server into a private network serves as a compensating control to protect it from potential
vulnerabilities that cannot be mitigated directly.
Compensating: Provides an alternative method to achieve the desired security outcome when the
primary control is not possible.
Deterrent: Aims to discourage potential attackers but does not directly address segmentation.
Corrective: Used to correct or mitigate the impact of an incident after it has occurred.
Preventive: Aims to prevent security incidents but is not specific to the context of segmentation.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 1.1 - Compare and contrast various
types of security controls (Compensating controls) .
Question # 11
A company that is located in an area prone to hurricanes is developing a disaster recovery plan andlooking at site considerations that allow the company to immediately continue operations. Which ofthe following is the best type of site for this company?
A. Cold B. Tertiary C. Warm D. Hot
Answer: D
Explanation:
For a company located in an area prone to hurricanes and needing to immediately continue
operations, the best type of site is a hot site. A hot site is a fully operational offsite data center that is
equipped with hardware, software, and network connectivity and is ready to take over operations
with minimal downtime.
Hot site: Fully operational and can take over business operations almost immediately after a disaster.
Cold site: A basic site with infrastructure in place but without hardware or data, requiring significant
time to become operational.
Tertiary site: Not a standard term in disaster recovery; it usually refers to an additional backup
location but lacks the specifics of readiness.
Warm site: Equipped with hardware and connectivity but requires some time and effort to become
fully operational, not as immediate as a hot site.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 3.4 - Importance of resilience and
recovery in security architecture (Site considerations: Hot site) .
Question # 12
A security administrator identifies an application that is storing data using MD5. Which of thefollowing best identifies the vulnerability likely present in the application?
A. Cryptographic B. Malicious update C. Zero day D. Side loading
Answer: A
Explanation:
The vulnerability likely present in the application that is storing data using MD5 is a cryptographic
vulnerability. MD5 is considered to be a weak hashing algorithm due to its susceptibility to collision
attacks, where two different inputs produce the same hash output, compromising data integrity and
security.
Cryptographic: Refers to vulnerabilities in cryptographic algorithms or implementations, such as the
weaknesses in MD5.
Malicious update: Refers to the intentional injection of harmful updates, not related to the use of
MD5.
Zero day: Refers to previously unknown vulnerabilities for which no patch is available, not specifically
related to MD5.
Side loading: Involves installing software from unofficial sources, not directly related to the use of
MD5.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 1.4 - Explain the importance of
using appropriate cryptographic solutions (MD5 vulnerabilities)
Question # 13
A security engineer needs to configure an NGFW to minimize the impact of the increasing number ofvarious traffic types during attacks. Which of the following types of rules is the engineer the mostlikely to configure?
A. Signature-based B. Behavioral-based C. URL-based D. Agent-based
Answer: B
Explanation:
To minimize the impact of the increasing number of various traffic types during attacks, a security
engineer is most likely to configure behavioral-based rules on a Next-Generation Firewall (NGFW).
Behavioral-based rules analyze the behavior of traffic patterns and can detect and block unusual or
malicious activity that deviates from normal behavior.
Behavioral-based: Detects anomalies by comparing current traffic behavior to known good behavior,
making it effective against various traffic types during attacks.
Signature-based: Relies on known patterns of known threats, which might not be as effective against
new or varied attack types.
URL-based: Controls access to websites based on URL categories but is not specifically aimed at
handling diverse traffic types during attacks.
Agent-based: Typically involves software agents on endpoints to monitor and enforce policies, not
